So how did the Sodom story get into the "homosexuality is a sin" box when neither the words themselves nor the parallel passages where the words occur supports such an interpretation. It all goes back to a Jewish philosopher who lived at the beginning of the Common Era (the time of Christ), Philo of Alexandria. Philo bought into Plato's philosophy hook, line and sinker. Plato was his lens for interpreting the Bible.
Plato gave us the distinction between "natural" and "unnatural" sex. He taught that the "nature" of human sexuality was reproduction. Since only sex between a man and a woman could be reproductive, then all other sexual relating was "unnatural." What about non- reproductive sexuality between a man and a woman, was that unnatural, too? Clearly male-male sexual relating was unnatural, as was female-female sexuality.
In later life, Plato taught that male-male sexual relating was of a "Higher order" than male-female relating. Why? One of the partners in heterosexuality was a woman! The old Greek had a profoundly messed-up view of women. One female friend of mine asked, when we were studying Plato's views of women, "What was he on when he wrote this stuff?"
Never do feelings, emotions, or relationships enter into Plato's thoughts. It's all about biology--.!